Free Practice Test

IELTS Listening Practice Test with Answers

A complete IELTS Listening practice test covering all four sections: Section 1 (form completion — social dialogue), Section 2 (map labelling + multiple choice — monologue), Section 3 (matching + multiple choice — academic discussion), and Section 4 (note completion — academic lecture). Full written transcripts, detailed answer explanations, question-type strategies, and band score conversion table included.

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By Sahil Sayed, CELTA-certified IELTS Trainer·Expert-reviewed·
Last updated: June 2026

What is in a full IELTS Listening practice test?

A full IELTS Listening test has four sections and 40 questions. Section 1 is a conversation in a social or transactional context (commonly form completion). Section 2 is a monologue on a practical topic (map labelling, multiple choice). Section 3 is an academic discussion between two or three speakers (matching, multiple choice). Section 4 is an academic lecture with no conversational breaks (note or flow-chart completion). All four sections are heard once only — recordings are not repeated.

Quick Facts

Sections
4 (social → academic)
Questions
32 (this test)
Recommended time
30 minutes
Transcripts
Included for all sections

How the IELTS Listening test works

Sections

4 — increasing in difficulty

Total questions

40 (10 per section)

Recording time

~30 minutes

Transfer time (paper)

10 minutes — none on computer

Each recording played

Once only — no repeats

Wrong answer penalty

None — always attempt every question

All IELTS Listening question types

Question type
Form / Note / Table Completion
Multiple Choice
Map / Plan Labelling
Matching
Sentence Completion
Flow-chart Completion
Short-answer Questions

How to use this practice test

  1. Read all questions for a section before revealing the transcript.
  2. Read the transcript at a steady pace as if listening — do not re-read.
  3. Write your answers on paper; check against the answer key.
  4. Read the explanation for every wrong answer — not just the correct one.

Section 1 — Form Completion (Questions 1–8)

Context

A woman calls a fitness centre to enquire about membership. Complete the membership enquiry form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Riverside Fitness Centre — Membership Enquiry Form

1
Surname: __________________
2
Date of birth: __________________
3
Occupation: __________________
4
Membership type: __________________
5
Preferred branch: __________________
6
Email address: __________________
7
Phone number: __________________
8
How heard about centre: __________________

Practice Transcript — read this after attempting the questions

Receptionist: Good morning, Riverside Fitness Centre. How can I help you?

Caller: Hello, I saw your advertisement online and I'm interested in joining as a member. Could you give me some more information?

Receptionist: Of course! I'll just take a few details from you first. Could I start with your full name?

Caller: Yes — it's Sarah Peterson.

Receptionist: Could you spell your surname for me?

Caller: P-E-T-E-R-S-O-N.

Receptionist: Perfect. And your date of birth?

Caller: 14th of March, 1989.

Receptionist: Lovely. And are you currently in employment?

Caller: Yes, I work as a teacher — secondary school.

Receptionist: Wonderful. We have a discount available for teachers and NHS staff. Which membership tier were you considering? We have Gold at forty-five pounds a month, Silver at thirty-five, or Bronze at twenty-five.

Caller: I think Silver would suit me best.

Receptionist: And which branch would you prefer? We have our main branch in Clifton, the East branch in Redland, and our newest branch in Cotham.

Caller: The Redland one — it's closest to my school.

Receptionist: Great choice. We'll need a photo ID and one proof of address when you come in. Can I take your email address for the confirmation?

Caller: Yes, it's sarah.peterson@webmail.co.uk.

Receptionist: And a phone number?

Caller: 07834 629 145.

Receptionist: Brilliant. And finally — how did you hear about us?

Caller: I spotted a poster at my local library.

Receptionist: Lovely. We'll send your welcome pack to that email within 24 hours.

Section 2 — Map Labelling + Multiple Choice (Questions 9–16)

Context

A recorded audio guide describes the layout and rules of a heritage museum. Questions 9–12: label the map (NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS). Questions 13–16: multiple choice (choose one letter A, B, or C).

Questions 9–12 — Label the museum map

Museum layout (from entrance gate, heading inward):

  • Immediately left of entrance: (9) ________
  • Straight ahead from entrance: Main Hall (given)
  • Right of Main Hall: (10) ________
  • North of item 10, beside the water: (11) ________
  • Left of Main Hall, through archway: (12) ________

Questions 13–16 — Multiple choice

13

The museum is closed on

ATuesdays
BMondays
CSundays
14

The standard closing time of the museum is

A4:30 pm
B5:00 pm
C6:00 pm
15

Photography is not permitted in the

AMain Hall
BEast Wing
CRestoration Workshop
16

Visitors cannot bring outside food to the

Apicnic area
BCafé
CEast Wing

Practice Transcript — read this after attempting the questions

Welcome to the Ironbridge Heritage Museum audio guide. The museum is arranged across four main zones which I'll walk you through now.

As you pass through the main entrance gate, the Gift Shop is immediately on your left. Straight ahead from the gate is the Main Hall, which holds our permanent exhibition on the history of the iron industry in this region. If you continue through the Main Hall and then turn right, you'll reach the Restoration Workshop, where you can watch our craftspeople demonstrate traditional metalworking techniques. Please be aware that photography is not permitted in the Workshop — the flash from cameras can damage certain historical artefacts on display.

For refreshments, the Café is situated to the north of the Restoration Workshop, right beside the river. It's the only food and drink facility on site — outside food is welcome in the picnic area near the car park, but not inside the Café itself.

Our temporary exhibitions change three times a year and are housed in the East Wing. You'll find it by turning left after the Main Hall and walking through the archway.

A few practical details: the museum is open Tuesday through Sunday, from nine in the morning to five in the afternoon. We close on Mondays for deep cleaning and maintenance. Last admission is at four thirty. On summer weekends — that's June, July, and August — we extend our evening opening to six pm. Guide dogs are welcome throughout the entire site.

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Section 3 — Matching + Multiple Choice (Questions 17–24)

Context

Three students — Tom (T), Mia (M), and James (J) — discuss their group assignment on urban food systems. Questions 17–20: who is responsible for each task? Write T, M, or J. Questions 21–24: multiple choice.

Questions 17–20 — Matching: who is responsible?

Write T (Tom), M (Mia), or J (James)

17

Urban food deserts ________

18

Vertical farming ________

19

Government policy ________

20

Collating the final document ________

Questions 21–24 — Multiple choice

21

Mia's section will compare urban farming in

Athe UK, Netherlands, and Japan
BSingapore, Rotterdam, and Tokyo
CChicago, Detroit, and New York
22

What does Tom say about his progress?

AHe has drafted his literature review.
BHe has been collecting data and has not started writing.
CHe has written the introduction and methodology.
23

What format does the assignment require?

AThree separate documents, one per student
BA single combined PDF with labelled sections
CA slide presentation with written notes
24

What does Tom offer to do?

AProofread the final document
BWrite the joint bibliography
CSet up the shared drive for version control

Practice Transcript — read this after attempting the questions

Mia: Right, we should use this tutorial time to sort out the project structure. So — our assignment is a 3,600-word report on urban food systems, due in three weeks. Who's taking what?

Tom: I was hoping to cover urban food deserts — the socioeconomic dimension. There's been some really compelling work out of Chicago and Detroit that I want to build on.

James: That suits me. I'll take the policy angle — local government intervention, planning law, things like that.

Mia: Which leaves vertical farming for me — which is actually what I wanted anyway, so perfect.

James: Mia, are you focusing on a specific city?

Mia: I'm doing a comparative piece, actually — Singapore, Rotterdam, and Tokyo. They're the three most advanced cases.

Tom: Good. For references — are we using mainly journal articles or are we including textbooks?

Mia: I'm relying on journals and FAO reports. Textbooks are often too out of date for this topic.

James: Same. Though I'll probably use some government white papers for the policy section — they're more specific to legislation.

Tom: Makes sense. Where are we all up to with writing?

Mia: I've finished my literature review and I'm halfway through the analysis section — about 1,800 words drafted.

Tom: I've been doing a lot of data gathering this week. Haven't started writing yet, to be honest.

James: I've drafted the introduction and the methodology. The main body is still to come.

Mia: OK — the submission instructions say we produce one combined PDF. Each section to be clearly labelled with the author's name.

Tom: And there's a joint bibliography at the end.

Mia: Right. I can coordinate the final collation — I'm usually the one who finishes first. I'll send everyone a combined draft by the Thursday before the deadline so we can proofread.

James: Perfect. Tom — do you want to use the university's shared drive for version control?

Tom: Yes, I'll set that up this afternoon.

Section 4 — Note Completion (Questions 25–32)

Context

A university lecturer gives an introductory lecture on urban beekeeping and pollinator conservation. Complete the lecture notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 25–32 — Note completion: Urban Beekeeping

Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD)

  • 25________ bees disappear from the colony; queen and food remain
  • 26exposure to neonicotinoid ________
  • 27infestation by ________ mites (Varroa destructor)

Why cities may suit bees better than countryside

  • 28diverse ________ of flowering species across the whole year
  • 29higher diversity of ________ than rural honey

Growth of urban beekeeping — London example

  • 30approximately ________ registered hives
  • 31more than ________ percent growth

Risks and regulation

  • 32maximum one hive per ________ of foraging area

Practice Transcript — read this after attempting the questions

Good afternoon, everyone. Today I want to introduce you to a topic that sits at the intersection of urban ecology and conservation policy — the rapid growth of beekeeping in cities, and what it reveals about our relationship with pollinator populations.

Let me begin with some context. Global honeybee populations have been under serious pressure since the mid-2000s, primarily due to a syndrome known as Colony Collapse Disorder, or CCD. CCD is defined by the abrupt disappearance of worker bees from a colony. The queen remains. The honey and food stores remain. But the adult worker bees vanish almost entirely. The causes are still contested, but the strongest evidence points to a combination of three factors: exposure to neonicotinoid pesticides, infestation by parasitic mites — specifically Varroa destructor — and the loss of diverse habitat.

Here is what makes this interesting from an urban ecology perspective: cities may actually offer bees a better habitat than much of the surrounding countryside. Large-scale monoculture agriculture leaves vast tracts of land with a single crop flowering for a few weeks and then nothing. Urban environments, by contrast, contain an extraordinarily diverse mosaic of flowering species — garden plants, park plantings, green rooftops, roadside trees — distributed across the whole year. Studies from both Paris and London have demonstrated that urban honey contains a higher diversity of micronutrients than honey from rural apiaries. City bees, in short, forage across a richer botanical landscape.

The numbers reflect this shift. The count of registered beehives in London grew from roughly three thousand in 2009 to more than sixteen thousand by 2023 — an increase of over four hundred percent. Paris and Berlin have seen similar trajectories.

However, the trend is not without complications. A study published in 2022 suggested that when managed honeybee colonies become too dense in an urban area, they create competition pressure on wild pollinators — bumblebees, solitary bees, hoverflies — by depleting the shared pool of nectar and pollen. In response, Amsterdam introduced a regulatory cap in 2021: no more than one hive per five hundred square metres of available foraging area.

The regulatory picture more broadly is still fragmented. Urban beekeeping sits uneasily across public health law, planning regulations, and agricultural policy, and most municipalities lack a coherent framework. The core lesson I want you to take away is this: well-intentioned conservation practice, if poorly managed, can inadvertently damage the ecosystem it is designed to protect. Urban beekeeping is a case study in the complexity of urban conservation at scale.

Answer key — all 32 questions

Section 1 — Form Completion (Questions 1–8)

1

Surname

Peterson

Spelled out letter by letter.

2

Date of birth

14th March 1989

Day, month, year — listen for the ordinal number.

3

Occupation

teacher

Secondary school teacher — one word is sufficient.

4

Membership type

Silver

Three options given: Gold (£45), Silver (£35), Bronze (£25).

5

Preferred branch

Redland

Three branches offered; caller picks the one nearest her school.

6

Email address

sarah.peterson@webmail.co.uk

Written out in full — copy exactly.

7

Phone number

07834 629 145

Read digit by digit — write as a number string.

8

How heard about centre

poster (at the library)

She says she spotted a poster at her local library.

Section 2 — Map + Multiple Choice (Questions 9–16)

9

Immediately left of the entrance gate

Gift Shop

Said at the start of the description.

10

Right of the Main Hall

Restoration Workshop

'Continue through the Main Hall and then turn right.'

11

North of the Restoration Workshop, beside the water

river

The Café sits beside the river.

12

Left of the Main Hall through the archway

East Wing

Where temporary exhibitions are held.

13

The museum is closed on

Answer: B

The guide says: 'We close on Mondays for deep cleaning and maintenance.'

14

The standard closing time of the museum is

Answer: B

Opening hours are nine to five. Last admission is 4:30 but closing is 5:00. Extended to 6pm on summer weekends only.

15

Photography is not permitted in the

Answer: C

'Flash from cameras can damage certain historical artefacts' — this restriction is in the Workshop only.

16

Visitors cannot bring outside food to the

Answer: B

'Outside food is welcome in the picnic area… but not inside the Café itself.'

Section 3 — Matching + Multiple Choice (Questions 17–24)

17

Urban food deserts

TTom

18

Vertical farming

MMia

19

Government policy

JJames

20

Collating the final document

MMia

21

Mia's section will compare urban farming in

Answer: B

Mia specifically names Singapore, Rotterdam, and Tokyo as her three comparative cases.

22

What does Tom say about his progress?

Answer: B

'I've been doing a lot of data gathering this week. Haven't started writing yet.' Option C describes James's progress.

23

What format does the assignment require?

Answer: B

Mia confirms: 'the submission instructions say we produce one combined PDF. Each section to be clearly labelled with the author's name.'

24

What does Tom offer to do?

Answer: C

Tom says: 'I'll set that up this afternoon' in response to James's suggestion about the shared drive.

Section 4 — Note Completion (Questions 25–32)

25

CCD main feature

worker

The worker bees vanish — not the queen.

26

Cause 1 of CCD

pesticides

Neonicotinoid pesticides — one word.

27

Cause 2 of CCD

parasitic

The mites are described as parasitic.

28

Why cities suit bees

mosaic

'an extraordinarily diverse mosaic of flowering species'

29

Urban honey quality

micronutrients

Micronutrient diversity — from the Paris/London study.

30

London hives in 2009

3,000

'roughly three thousand in 2009'

31

Increase by 2023

400

'an increase of over four hundred percent'

32

Amsterdam regulation (2021)

500 square metres

'no more than one hive per five hundred square metres'

Question-type strategies

Form / Note Completion

  1. Read ALL questions before the recording starts. Predict what type of information fills each gap (name, number, time, place).
  2. Follow the form or note in order — recordings always flow top to bottom, left to right.
  3. Write the exact word(s) you hear. Do not paraphrase. 'teacher' ≠ 'an educator'.
  4. Obey the word limit absolutely. 'No more than two words and/or a number' means a maximum of two words plus an optional number.
  5. If you miss an answer, leave it and keep pace with the recording. Return at the end if time allows.

Common trap: Changing what you hear into a synonym. 'Silver membership' requires writing 'Silver' — not 'mid-tier' or 'medium plan'.

Map / Plan Labelling

  1. Study the map before the recording: identify the entrance, north arrow, and any labels already given.
  2. Locate a fixed reference point mentioned early in the recording and anchor your position there.
  3. Track directions carefully: left, right, north, south, beside, opposite, through, past.
  4. Answers are usually single nouns (Gift Shop, Café, East Wing) — write from the word bank or the recording.
  5. If a turn catches you by surprise, re-anchor at the next landmark rather than guessing backwards.

Common trap: Confusing relative directions (left vs right) when the narrator's facing direction is not your facing direction. Always orient from the entrance.

Multiple Choice (A/B/C)

  1. Read all three options before the audio plays — know what distinctions you are listening for.
  2. The correct answer is almost never the first relevant thing said. Speakers often mention distractors before confirming.
  3. Listen for correction language: 'actually', 'but', 'no — it's', 'I meant'. These signal the true answer.
  4. Eliminate options as the speaker rules them out. Two wrong options are usually easier to spot than one right one.
  5. Mark your best answer immediately — do not leave blanks expecting to return.

Common trap: Choosing an option because you heard a word from it. The recording often mentions words from wrong options to mislead. Verify that the full meaning matches.

Matching

  1. Read both the item list and the option list before the recording. Section 3 matching often uses three speakers — track who says what.
  2. The same option is never used twice for the same task (unless instructions allow it).
  3. Draw a simple grid in the margin: item numbers on one axis, option letters on the other. Tick as you eliminate.
  4. Look for emphasis: speakers make statements like 'I'm doing the policy section' as unambiguous assignments.
  5. Do not assign an answer based on the topic being mentioned — look for the speaker claiming ownership or responsibility.

Common trap: Matching based on who mentions a topic rather than who is assigned to it. In academic discussions, students often discuss each other's topics.

Band score conversion

IELTS Listening uses a raw score of 0–40. The table below shows the official approximate conversion. The exact conversion shifts slightly between test papers. For this 32-question practice test, use the proportional guide below.

Official 40-question conversion

Raw scoreBand
39–409.0
37–388.5
35–368.0
32–347.5
30–317.0
26–296.5
23–256.0
18–225.5
16–175.0
13–154.5
10–124.0

32-question practice guide

CorrectIndication
30–32Band 8.0 – 9.0 range
25–29Band 7.0 – 7.5 range
20–24Band 6.0 – 6.5 range
15–19Band 5.0 – 5.5 range
10–14Band 4.0 – 4.5 range
0–9Below Band 4.0

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Frequently Asked Questions

The IELTS Listening test has four sections and 40 questions. Each section has 10 questions. Sections become progressively more challenging: Section 1 is a social conversation, Section 2 is a monologue on a practical topic, Section 3 is an academic discussion, and Section 4 is an academic lecture.

Yes. Unlike Reading and Writing, the IELTS Listening test is identical for both Academic and General Training candidates. The same four sections, the same question types, and the same band score conversion table apply to both.

The recordings run for approximately 30 minutes. In the paper-based test, candidates then have 10 additional minutes to transfer answers from the question booklet to the answer sheet. In computer-delivered IELTS, answers are typed directly — there is no transfer time, but you have 2 minutes after each section to check your answers.

Each recording is played once only. There is no repeat. This is why pre-reading the questions before each section begins is essential — you need to know what to listen for before the audio starts.

Raw scores convert approximately as follows: 39–40 = Band 9.0, 37–38 = 8.5, 35–36 = 8.0, 32–34 = 7.5, 30–31 = 7.0, 26–29 = 6.5, 23–25 = 6.0, 18–22 = 5.5. The exact conversion varies slightly between test papers based on difficulty.

Section 4 is a solo academic lecture with no conversational breaks to help you reorient. The vocabulary is more technical, the information density is higher, and the pace rarely slows. There are no social cues (like a question-and-answer exchange) to signal when a new topic is coming. Most candidates find it requires the most active listening stamina.

No. IELTS uses a simple raw score — one mark per correct answer, zero for incorrect or blank. You should always attempt every question. A blank can never outscore a guess.

Yes. You can write on the question paper throughout the test. In the paper-based version, this is particularly important because you need to transfer your answers to the answer sheet afterwards. In computer-delivered IELTS, you type directly into the answer fields.

The most frequently appearing types are: form/note/table completion (very common in Sections 1 and 4), multiple choice (Sections 2, 3, and sometimes 4), and matching (very common in Section 3). Map and plan labelling appear in approximately half of all test papers, usually in Section 2.

The fastest improvements typically come from: (1) targeted practice by question type rather than full tests only, (2) strict pre-reading of questions in the pause before each section, (3) practising with British, Australian, and North American accents, and (4) reviewing every wrong answer to understand whether you mishear, misread the word limit, or made a prediction error. Listening stamina improves with practice — daily 30-minute sessions are more effective than weekly full tests.

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